This is the last part of our four-part series (I, II, IIIa, IIIb, Intermission) on the debates surrounding ancient Greek hoplites and the phalanx formation in which they fought. We’ve spent the last two entries in this series looking at warfare quite narrowly through the lens of tactics: hoplite spacing, depth, fighting style, and so on. I’ve argued for what I regard as a ‘blended’ model that sits somewhere between orthodoxy and heterodoxy: no ‘shoving’ othismos, but the hoplite phalanx is a shield wall, a formation with mostly regular spacing that is intended for shock and functions as a shock-focused shield wall formation likely from a relatively early date.
This week, we’re going to now ‘zoom out’ a bit and ask what implications the hoplite debate has for our broader understanding of Greek society, particularly polis Greek society. Hoplites, as warriors, were generally found in the Greek poleis but of course not all Greeks lived in poleis and areas of Greece without poleis largely lacked hoplites as well. In particular, our understanding of the place that hoplites have in polis society has a bunch of downstream implications in terms of social structure, the prevalence of slavery and even the question of how many Greeks there are in the first place.
I ended up having to split this into two parts for time, so this week we’re going to focus on the social status of hoplites, as well as some of the broader implications, particularly demographic ones, of a change in our understanding of how rich hoplites were. Then next week we’re going to close the series out by looking at hoplite ‘discipline,’ training and experience.
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Orthodox Yeoman Hoplites
The key question we are asking here is fundamentally “how broad is the hoplite class?” That is, of course, a very important question, but as we’ll see, also a fiendishly tricky one. It is also a question where it can be unclear sometimes where scholars actually are which can render the debates confusing: heterodox scholars write articles and chapters against something called the ‘myth of the middle-class hoplite‘1 but it isn’t always clear exactly what the bounds of the model they’re arguing against is, in part because orthodox scholars are not generally proposing hard numbers for the size of the hoplite class.\
Post-Publication Edit: We’ve already had some confusion in the comments so I want to leave a clarifying edit here. We’re about to dive into a lot of questions about the percentage of people in the hoplite class. But all of the scholars involve calculate those figures on a different basis – in particular does the denominator include women? children? slaves? the elderly? I try to homogenize those estimates here as best I can, often aiming for a ‘percentage of free households‘ (so the enslaved excluded) or ‘percentage of adult males’ (so women and children excluded, but slaves included) in a given status type. But I am afraid you will have to keep track fairly closely of exactly what percentage of what we’re calculating (and of course it is entirely possible I have simply made a math error somewhere, although I have tried to be careful).
By way of example, I want to take Victor Davis Hansen out to the woodshed on this point – because his half of this specific disconnect was brought up in the comments early in this series – in terms of the difference between how he sometimes imagines in words the size and social composition of the hoplite class and then how it looks when he uses numbers. In The Other Greeks, VDH’s preference for describing the hoplite polis of the late Archaic is ‘broad-based’ a term he uses for it about three dozen times, including on when he talks about the “broad base of hoplite yeomanry” and how “when middling farmers were in control of a Greek polis government it was broad-based: it was representative of the economic interest of most of the citizenry” and when he references “the yeomanry […] who had built the polis and created broad-based agrarian governments.”2 These references are, in my digital copy, all within 3 pages of each other. They certainly give the impression of a middling, yeoman-hoplite class that dominated the typical polis. And indeed, in his more pop-focused works, like the deeply flawed Carnage and Culture (2001) he posits Greece as the origin point for a western tradition that includes “equality among the middling classes” tied to the hoplite tradition, which certainly seems to suggest that Hanson thinks we should understand the hoplite class as broad, covering even relatively poor farmers, and with a great degree of internal equality.
But then flash forward three whole pages and we’re calculating the size of that ‘broad-based’ class and we get a line like, “the full-citizen hoplites […] composed about twenty percent of the total adult resident population of Boeotia.”3 And pulling out just that second quote, someone might express confusion when I say that the heterodox argue that the hoplite class is small and exclusive, a rejection of the ‘middle class’ yeoman-hoplite of the orthodox school, because look there is VDH himself saying they’re only 20%! But equally, one may question the fairness of describing such a rate of enfranchisement as ‘broad-based!’
Now on the one hand VDH’s argument in this passage is about the relative inclusivity of ‘moderate’ oligarchies (the ‘broad-based’ ones) as compared to radical Greek democracies and so the question of the relative breadth of the hoplite class itself is not particularly his concern. But I think he’s also hiding the ball here in key ways: Boeotia is a tricky test case – unusual and famous for both its significant cavalry (drawn from an unusually wealthy aristocracy) and light infantry manpower (drawn from an unusually impoverished peasantry). VDH notes the low property qualifications for citizenship in Boeotia but does not stop to consider if that might be connected not to the hoplites, but to the unusually large numbers of Boeotian light infantry.
Moreover, there is a lack of clarity when presenting these percentages as to exactly what is being included. VDH’s 20% figure is 20% of the total “adult resident population,” rather than – as we might expect – a percentage of the adult male population or frequently the free adult male population. So he is actually asserting something like almost 45% (really probably 43 or 44%) of free households serve as hoplites (once we adjust for women and the elderly), which, as we’ll see, I think is pretty doubtful.4 For the sake of keeping comparisons here ‘clean,’ I am going to try to be really clear on what is a percentage of what, because as we’ll see there is in fact, a real difference between the orthodox assumption of a hoplite class of 40-50% of free households and the heterodox assumption that is closer to 25% of free households.
So when I say that heterodox scholars generally argue for a smaller, economically elite hoplite class while orthodox scholars generally assume a larger ‘yeoman’ hoplite class, it can be tricky to pin down what that means, particularly on the orthodox side. We need apples-to-apples number comparisons to get a sense of where these folks differ.
And I think the place to actually start with this is Karl Julius Beloch (1854-1929); stick with me, I promise this will make sense in a second. Beloch’s Die Bevölkerung der griechisch-römischen Welt (1886, “The Population of the Greco-Roman World”) is the starting point for all of the debates of Greek and Roman demography, the first really significant, systematic effort to estimate the population of the entire classical world in a rigorous way. Now if you recall your historiography from our first part, you will quickly realize that as a German writing in the 1880s, Beloch was bound to have drawn his assumptions about Greek society and the social role of the hoplite class from those early Prussian and German scholars who serve as the foundation for the orthodox school. They were, after all, writing at the same time and in the same language as he was. Equally useful (for us) Beloch’s basic range of estimates for Greece remain more-or-less the accepted starting point for the problem, which is to say that a lot of current historians of ancient Greece when they think about the population of the Greek poleis are still ‘thinking with Beloch’ (typically mediated by Corvisier and Suder, La population de l’Antitiquité classique (2000)).
So analyzing Beloch’s approach – and because he is estimating population, he is forced to use numbers – can give us a sense of the society that the ‘orthodox’ vision of hoplites imagined at its inception and which it largely still imagines when it thinks in terms of raw population numbers. And that can help us lock down what we’re actually arguing about.
In very brief, Beloch had a problem to solve in estimating the population of Greece. Whereas in Roman Italy, he had census data to interpret, we have no equivalent in Greece (ancient reports of population in Greece are rare and almost invariably unreliable). So instead he adopts the method of estimating from maximum military deployments, the one number we reliably get from ancient sources. Doing so, of course, requires squaring away some key questions: what percentage of adult males might be called up for these armies? Our sources often give us only figures for hoplites, so this question really becomes, ‘what percentage of adult males served as hoplites?’ And then following on that, what percentage of people were female, children, elderly or non-free?
Beloch answers those questions as follows: he assumes that roughly half of all free households are in the hoplite class, so he can compute the free adult male population by multiplying hoplite deployments by two, that he can compute the free population by multiplying the adult male population by three, and that the non-free population is around 25% of the total (significantly concentrated in Sparta and Athens), including both slaves and serfs. You can see the logic in these assumptions but as I am going to argue all of these assumptions are wrong, some more wrong than others. We’ll come back to this, but I think Beloch’s key stumbling block (apart from just badly underestimating the number of children in a pre-modern population – he should be multiplying his adult males by four, not three) is that he largely assumes that the Greek poleis look more or less like the Roman Republic except that the Romans recruit a bit further down their socio-economic ladder. And that’s…not right, though you could see how someone working in the 1880s might jump to that expedient when the differences in Greek and Roman social structure were less clear.
Greeks are not Romans and the Greek polis is not the Roman Republic.5
Nevertheless those assumptions suggest a vision, a mental model of the social structure of the typical Greek polis: wealthy citizens of the hoplite class make up roughly half of the free households (he explicitly defends a 47/53% breakdown between hoplite and sub-hoplite), while the landless citizen poor make up the other half. Beloch assumes an enslaved population of c. 1m (against a free population of c. 3m), so a society that is roughly 25% enslaved, so we might properly say he imagines a society that is roughly 37.5% hoplite class (or richer), 37.5% poorer households and 25% enslaved households. And returning to a moment to VDH’s The Other Greeks (1995), that’s his model too: if 20% of adults (not just adult males) were citizen-hoplites in Boeotia, then something like 43% of (free) households were hoplite households (remember to adjust not just for women, but also for the elderly),6 which is roughly Beloch’s figure. It is a touch lower, but remember that VDH is computing for Boeotia, a part of Greece where we expect a modestly larger lower class.
What does it mean for a society if the hoplite class represents approximately 40% of households (including non-free households)?
Well, this suggests first that the hoplite class is perhaps the largest or second-largest demographic group, behind only free poor citizens. It also assumes that nearly all of the propertied households – that is, the farmers who own their own farms – both served as hoplites and were members of the hoplite class.7 In particular, this imagines the ‘typical’ member of the hoplite class (this distinction between hoplites and the hoplite class will matter in a moment) as a middling farmer whose farm was likely small enough that he had to work it himself (not having enough land to live off rents or enslaved labor), essentially a modest peasant. Moreover the assumption here is that this broad hoplite ‘middle class’ dominates the demography of the polis, with very few leisured elites above them and a similar number of free poor (rather than a much larger number) below them.
And I want to note here again there is an implicit – only rarely explicit (Beloch makes the comparison directly) – effort to reason from the social model we see in the Roman Republic, where the assidui (the class liable for taxes and military service) as a group basically did include nearly all farmers with any kind of property and ‘farmers with any kind of property’ really does seem to have included the overwhelming majority of the population. There’s an effort to see Greek ‘civic militarism’ through the same frame, with the polis a community made up of small freeholding farmers banding together.8 I think scholarship has not always grappled clearly enough with the ways in which Rome is not like an overgrown polis, but in fact quite different. One of those differences is that the assidui is a much larger class of people than anything in a polis, encompassing something like 70% of all adult males (free and non-free) and perhaps as much as 90% of all free households. That is an enormous difference jumping even from 37.5% to 70%. What that figure suggests is both that Roman military participation reached much more robustly into the lower classes but also that (and we’ll come back to this in a moment) land ownership was probably more widespread among the Roman peasantry than their Greek equivalents.
In short part of what makes the Roman Republic different is not just where they draw the census lines, but the underlying structure of the countryside is meaningfully different and that has very significant impacts on the structure of Roman society.9 Taken on its own evidence, it sure looks like the organization of land in the Greek countryside was meaningfully less equal10 and included meaningfully more slaves than the Italian countryside, with significant implications for how we understand the social position of hoplites. And that brings us to the heterodox objections and thus…
Divisions Among Hoplites
The response to the ‘yeoman hoplite’ model of hoplite orthodoxy has been Hans van Wees’ assault on the ‘myth of the middle-class hoplite.’11
What van Wees does is look specifically at Athens, because unlike anywhere else in the Greek world, we have the complete ‘schedule’ of wealth classes in Athens, denominated in agricultural production. He’s able to reason from that to likely estate size for each of the classes and from there, given the size of Attica (the territory of Athens) and the supposed citizen population (estimates from 40,000 to 60,000) the total size of each wealth class in terms of households and land ownership, in order to very roughly sketch the outlines of what wealth and social class in Attica might have looked like. Our sources offer little sense that they thought Athenian class structure was ever unusual or remarkable beyond the fact that Athens was very big (in contrast to Sparta, which is treated as quite strange), so the idea here is that insights in Athenian class divisions help us understand class divisions in other poleis as well.
What he is working with are the wealth classes defined by the reforms of Solon, which we haven’t really discussed in depth but these are reported by Plutarch (Solon 16) and seem to have been the genuine property classifications for Athenian citizens, which I’ve laid out in the chart below. Wealth was defined by the amount of grain (measured in medimnoi, a dry measure unit of 51.84 liters), but for non-farmers (craftsmen and such) you qualified to the class equal to your income (so if you got paid the equivalent of 250 medimnoi of grain to be a blacksmith, you were of the zeugitai, though one imagines fairly few non-landowners qualify for reasons swiftly to become clear).
| Name | Wealth Requirement | Notional Military role | Percentage of Population Following van Wees (2001) |
| Pentakosiomedimnoi (“500 Bushel Men”) | 500 medimnoi or more | Leaders, Officers, Generals | 1.7-2.5% |
| Hippeis (‘horsemen’) | 400 medimnoi | Cavalry | 1.7-2.5% |
| Zeugitai (‘yoked ones’) | 200 medimnoi (possibly reduced later to 150 medimnoi) | Hoplites | 5.6-25% |
| Thetes (‘serfs’) | Less than 200 medimnoi | Too poor to serve (later rowers in the navy) | 90-70% |
Now traditionally, the zeugitai were regarded as the ‘hoplite class’ and that is sometimes supposed to be the source of their name (they were ‘yoked together’ standing in position in the phalanx), but what van Wees is working out is that although the zeugitai are supposed to be the core of the citizen polity (the thetes have limited political participation) there simply cannot be that many of them because the minimum farm necessary to produce 200 medimnoi of grain is going to be around 7.5 ha12 or roughly 18 acres which is – by peasant standards – an enormous farm, well into ‘rich peasant’ territory. It is, in fact, roughly enough farm for the owner to not do much or any farming but instead subsist entirely off of either rents or the labor of enslaved workers.13
In short, the zeugitai aren’t ‘working class’ ‘yeoman farmers’ at all, but leisure-class elites – mostly landlords, not farmers – albeit poorer than the hippeis and pentakosiomedimnoi even further above them. And that actually makes a great deal of sense: one of the ideas that pops up in Greek political philosophy – albeit in tension with another we’ll get to in a moment – is the idea that the ideal hoplite is a leisured elite and that the ideal polis would be governed exclusively by the leisured hoplites.14 Indeed, when a bunch of Greek-speakers (mostly Macedonians) find themselves suddenly in possession of vast kingdoms, this is exactly the model they try to build their military on (before getting utterly rolled by the Romans because this is actually a bad way to build a society). And of course Sparta’s citizen body, the spartiates, replicate this model as well. Often when we see elements in a Greek polis try to create an oligarchy, what they are intending to do is reduce political participation back to roughly this class – the few thousand richest households – which is not all the hoplites, but merely the richest ones.
Of course with such large farms there can’t be all that many zeugitai and indeed there don’t seem to have been. In van Wees’ model, the zeugitai-and-up classes never supply even half of the number of hoplites we see Athens deploy; they only barely crawl over half if we assume the property qualification was (as it probably was) reduced at some point to just 150 medimnoi. Instead, under most conditions the majority of hoplites are thetes, pulled from the wealthiest stratum of that class (van Wees figures these fellows probably have farms in the range of ~3 ha or so, so c. 7.5 acres). Those thetes make up the majority of hoplites on the field but do not enjoy the political privileges of the ‘hoplite class.’ And pushing against the ‘polis-of-rentier-elites’ model, we often also find Greek sources remarking that these fellows, “wiry and sunburnt” (Plato Republic 556cd, trans. van Wees), make the best soldiers because they’re more physically fit and more inured to hardship – because unlike the wealthy hoplites they actually have to work.
What the transition to the Athenian democracy meant was the full enfranchisement of this large class of thetes, both the fellows who could afford to fight as hoplites (but previously didn’t have the rights of them) and the poorer citizen thetes.
And of course this isn’t only Athens. The only other polis whose complete social system we can see with any clarity, of course, is Sparta and when we look there, what do we find? A system where political participation is limited to the rentier-elite class (the Spartiates), where there is another class of poorer hoplites – the perioikoi, who fight as hoplites – who are entirely blocked from political participation. It appears to be the same kind of dividing line, with the difference being that the spartiates had become so dominant as to deny the perioikoi even citizenship in the polity and to physically segregate themselves (the perioikoi lived in their own communities, mostly on the marginal land). It is suggestive that this sort of divide between the wealthy ‘hoplite class’ that enjoyed distinct political privileges and other ‘working-class’ hoplites who did not (and yet even far more poor farmers who could not afford to fight as hoplites) was common in the polis.
That leaves the notion of a truly ‘broad-based’ hoplite-class that runs a ‘broad-based’ agrarian polis government that consisted of ‘middle-class’ ‘yeoman’ hoplites largely in tatters. Instead, what you may normally have is a legally defined ‘hoplite class’ that is just the richest 10-20% of the free citizen population, a distinct ‘poor hoplite’ class that might be around 20% and then a free citizen underclass of 60-70% that cannot fight as hoplites and also have very limited political participation, even though many of them do own some small amount of land.
Once again, if you’ll forgive me, that looks nothing like the Middle Roman Republic, where the capite censi (aka the proletarii) – men too poor to serve – probably amounted to only around 10% of the population and the light infantry contingent of a Roman army (where the poorest men who could serve would go) was just 25%.15 So whereas the free ‘Roman’ underclass of landless or very poor is at most perhaps 35% of (free) households,16 the equivalent class at Athens at least (and perhaps in Greece more broadly) is 60% of (free) households. Accounting for the enslaved population makes this gap wider, because it certainly seems like the percentage of the enslaved population in Greece was somewhat higher than Roman Italy. It is suddenly less of a marvel that Rome could produce military mobilizations that staggered the Greek world. Greeks are not Romans.
This is a set of conclusions that naturally has significant implications for how we understand the polis, particularly non-democratic poleis. Older scholarship often assumes that a ‘broad’ Greek oligarchy meant rule by the landholding class, but if you look at the number of enfranchised citizens, it is clear that ‘broad’ oligarchies were much narrower than this: not ‘farmer’s republics’ (as VDH supposes) but rather ‘landlord‘s republics.’17 That is quite a different sort of state! And understanding broad oligarchies in this way suddenly restores the explanatory power of what demokratia was in Greek thought: it isn’t just about enfranchising the urban poor (a class that must have been vanishingly small in outside of very large cities like Athens) but about enfranchising the small farmer, a class that would have been quite large in any polis for reasons we’ve discussed with peasants.

I think there’s also a less directly important but even more profound implication here:
Wait, How Many Greeks Are There?
The attentive reader may be thinking, “wait, but Beloch’s population estimates assume that the hoplite contingent of any Greek polis represent half of its military aged (20-60) free adult males, but you’re saying that number might be much lower, perhaps just 30 or 40%?”
I actually haven’t seen any scholars directly draw this connection, so I am going to do so here. Hell, I’ve already seen this blog cited quite a few times in peer-reviewed scholarship so why not.
If it isn’t already clear, I think when it comes to the size of the hoplite class, van Wees is correct and that thought interlocks with another thought that has slowly crept into my mind and at last become lodged as my working assumption: we have significantly under-counted the number of Greeks. Or, more correctly, everyone except Mogens Herman Hansen has significantly under-counted the number of Greeks. So good job to Mogens Herman Hansen, everyone else, see me after class.
Now these days the standard demographic reference for the population of Greece is not Beloch (1886), it is Corvisier and Suder, La population de l’Antitiquité classique (2000). Unlike Beloch, they do not reason from military deployments, instead they reason from estimated population density. Now I want to be clear, they are reasoning from estimated rural population density, which is not the same as reasoning from built-up urban area18 The thing is, we can’t independently confirm rural population density from archaeology (unlike urban area estimates) so this method is entirely hostage to its assumptions. So the fact that Corvisier and Suder’s estimates fall neatly almost exactly on Beloch’s estimate (a free population of c. 3m in mainland Greece) might suggest they tweaked their assumptions to get that result. And on some level, it is a circular process, because Beloch checks his own military-based estimates with population density calculations in order to try to show that he is producing reasonable numbers. So if you accept Beloch’s density estimates at the beginning, you are going to end up back-computing Beloch’s military estimates at the end, moving through the same process in reverse order.
But you can see how we have begun to trouble the foundations of Beloch’s numbers in a few ways. First off, we’ve already noted that his multiplier to get from military aged males to total population (multiply by three) is too low (it needs to be four). Beloch didn’t have the advantage of modern model life tables or the ability to see so clearly that mortality in his own day was changing rapidly and had been doing so for a while. Adjusting for that alone has to bring the free population up to support the military numbers, to around 4m instead of 3m (so we have effectively already broken Corvisier and Suder (2000)). Then there is the question of the prevalence of the enslaved; Beloch figures 25% (1m total), but estimates certainly run higher. Bresson, L’économie de la Grèce des cités (2007/8) figures perhaps 40-50% and 30% is also a common estimate, though we are here, in practice, largely guessing. Even keeping the 25% figure Beloch uses, which we now have to acknowledge may be on the low side, we have to raise the number of enslaved to reflect the larger free population: 1.33m instead of 1m, for a new total of 5.33m instead of Beloch’s original 4m.
But then if the number of men who fight as hoplites is not, as Beloch supposes, roughly half of polis society, but closer to 40% or even less, then we would need to expand the population even further. If it is, say, 40% instead of 50%, suddenly instead of Beloch’s computation (very roughly) of 500,000 hoplites giving us 1,000,000 free adult men giving us 3,000,000 free persons, resulting in a total population of 4,000,000 including the enslaved, we have 500,000 hoplites implying 1,250,000 free adult men implying 5,000,000 free persons, to which we have to add something like 1,500,000 enslaved persons19 implying a total human population not of 3 or 4m but of c. 6,500,000.
And there’s a reason to think that might be right. The one truly novel effort at estimating the population of Greece in the last few decades (and/or century or so) was by Mogens Herman Hansen. Having spent quite some time on a large, multi-scholar project to document every known polis (resulting in M.H. Hansen and T.H. Nielsen, An Inventory of Archaic and Classical Poleis (2004)), M.H. Hansen decided to use that count as a basis to estimate population, assigning a rough estimate to the size of small, medium and large poleis – using the built-up urban area of poleis we knew relatively well – and then simply multiplying by all of the known poleis to exist at one point in time. The result, documented in M.H. Hansen, The shogtun method: the demography and ancient Greek city-state culture (2006), produced an estimate of 4-6m for mainland Greece and I think, to be frank, Hansen pulled his punch here. His method really produced the top figure in that range, a significantly higher figure that generally postulated for Greece.20
My strong suspicion – which the evidence is insufficient to confirm definitively – is that van Wees is right about the relative size of the slice of men who fight as hoplites (distinct from the ‘hoplite class’) and that M.H. Hansen is correct about the population and that these two conclusions interlock with each other to imply a rather different Greece in terms of equality and social structure than we had thought.
Looping back around to what is my repeated complaint this week: we were often conditions to think about Greek agriculture, the Greek peasantry, the Greek countryside through the lens of the much better documented Roman Italian agriculture, peasantry and countryside. After all, it is for Italy, not Greece, that we have real census data, it is the Roman period, not the classical period, that gives us sustained production of agricultural treatises. We simply have a much better picture of Roman social structures and so it was natural for scholars trying to get to grips with a quite frankly alien economic system to work from the nearest system they knew. And that was fine when we were starting from nothing but I think it is a set of assumptions that have outlived their usefulness.
This isn’t the place for this argument in full (that’s in my book), but briefly, the structure of the Roman countryside – as we come to see it in the late third/early second century BC – did not form naturally. It was instead the product of policy, by that point, of a century’s worth of colonial settlements intentionally altering, terraforming, landholding patterns to maximize the amount of heavy infantry the land could support. It was also the product of a tax-and-soldier-pay regime (tributum and stipendium) that on the net channeled resources downward to enable poorer men to serve in that heavy infantry.21 Those mechanisms are not grinding away in mainland Greece (we can leave Greek colonial settlement aside for now, as it is happening outside of mainland Greece), so we have no reason to expect the structure of the countryside to look the same either.
In short the Romans are taking steps to ‘flatten out’ their infantry class (but not their aristocracy, of course), to a degree, which we do not see in Greece. Instead, where we get an ideology of economically equal citizenry, it is an ideology of equality within the leisured elite, an ‘equality of landlords’ not an equality of farmers. We should thus not expect wealth and land distribution to be as ‘flat’ in Greece as in Italy – and to be clear, wealth distribution in Italy was not very flat by any reasonable standard, there was enormous disparity between the prima classis (‘first class’) of infantry and the poorest Roman assidui. But it was probably flatter than in Greece within the infantry class (again, the Roman aristocracy is a separate question), something that seems confirmed given that the militarily active class in Roman Italy is so much larger and more heavily concentrated into the heavy infantry.22 Consequently, we ought not assume that we can casually estimate the total population of Greece from hoplite deployments, supposing that the Greeks like the Romans, expected nearly all free men to serve. Instead, the suggestion of our evidence was that in Greece, as in many pre-modern societies, military service (and thus political power) was often the preserve of an exclusive affluent class.
Implications
But returning to Greece, I would argue that accepting the heterodox position on the social status of hoplites has some substantial implications. First, it suggests that there was, in fact, a very real and substantial social division within the body of hoplites, between wealth hoplites who were of the ‘hoplite class’ as politically understood and poor hoplites who fought in the same way but only enjoyed a portion of the social status implied. That division suddenly makes sense of the emergence of demokratia in poleis that were more rural than Athens (which is all of them). The typical polis was thus not a ‘farmer’s republic’ but a landlord’s republic.
At the same time, this also substantially alters the assumptions about ‘yeoman hoplites’ who have to rush home to pull in their harvests and who are, in effect, ‘blue-collar warriors.’ Instead, the core of the hoplite army was a body – not a majority, but a significant minority – of leisured elites who had slaves or tenants doing most of their farming for them. What kept hoplite armies from campaigning year-round was as much poor logistics as yeoman economics (something clear in the fact that spartiates – by definition leisured elites – didn’t campaign year-round either).
Finally, if we extend this thinking into our demographic analysis, we have to accept a much larger population in Greece, with all of the expansion happening below the men who fought as hoplites (both the hoplite class and our poorer working-class hoplites). It suggests a remarkably less equal social structure in Greece – indeed, perhaps less equal than the structure in Roman Italy – which in turn significantly caveats the way we often understand the Greek polis as a citizen community relatively more egalitarian and free than the absolute monarchies which pervaded Egypt and the Near East.
And of course, for one last return to my pet complaint in this post, it should reinforce our sense that Greek are not Romans and that we cannot casually supply the habits, economics or social structures of one society to the other to fill in gaps in our evidence. In particular, the assumption that the Greeks and Romans essentially share a civic and military tradition is a thing that would need to be proved, not assumed.23
- e.g. ch4 of van Wees, Greek Warfare: Myths and Realities (2004) is, “Men of Bronze: the myth of the middle-class militia” and his 2001 chapter, “The Myth of the Middle-Class Army” in T. Bekker-Nielsen/L. Hannestad (eds.), War as a Cultural and Social Force: Essays on Warfare in Antiquity (2001).
- VDH, The Other Greeks (1995), 205-7. I have a digital copy of this (it’s a kindle version) which gives page numbers, but I do not know if these match the page numbers in the print version.
- op. cit., 210.
- Quickly on the math: if 20% of the adult population are hoplites, then shifting our statistic to the adult male population is going to basically double that figure to 40%. Factoring in the small but meaningful number of men over 60 who no longer serve is going to inch it up further, close to 45%. So the suggestion here is that nearly half of all households can furnish a hoplite, which we’re going to see in a second is exactly what I think VDH and other orthodox scholars mean. But notice how tricky that statistic is: we could say that under VDH’s model, 45% of households serve as hoplites in Boeotia, but flip that around and we could equally say with the same model that less than ten percent of free Boeotians at any given time were eligible to serve as hoplites, accounting for the fact that half of this society will be female and nearly 55% of it will be underage, so ‘adult males’ only make up around 22.5% of the population, so 45% of 22.5% ends up being almost exactly 10%.
- While we’re beating up on VDH, at the start of his chapter on the ideology of the polis, he quotes Pliny, Natural History 18.4 (18.4.18), “Anyone for whom seven acres are not enough is a dangerous citizen,” which just about broke me because of course first Greeks are not Romans and this is Pliny the Elder (d. 79 AD) quoting Manius Curius (d. 270 BCE at Rome) and also because it is a mistranslation: it is not seven acres but seven iugera, which is 4.36 acres (he’s also somewhat mangled the relative clause of characteristic here). Needless to say, Pliny the Elder cannot be an authority for the ideology of the Archaic Greek polis but also the fact that the ‘ideal’ Roman farm suggested here is significantly smaller than the figures we’re going to see in a moment for the Greeks is also a tell that the Romans maybe do not have the same assumptions about the wealth of their heavy infantry.
- Which I may note VDH fails to do, but men above fighting age (sixty for a Greek polis, generally) would make up about 2.5 of the population (and women of that age another 3.5%) even under the dismal estimated mortality figures in antiquity.
- I am struck by Hanson’s use of ‘yeoman’ here because he may be thinking of that social class in Colonial North America, unaware that in Britain there was in fact a significant class of freeholding farmers poorer than the yeomanry, called the ‘husbandry.’
- Again, Hanson makes this badly flawed ‘Greece and Rome are basically the same’ sort of argument more or less explicitly in his later works, like Carnage and Culture (2001). His grasp on the Roman Republic is, frankly, quite poor.
- The most obvious is the enormous role of patronage in Roman social structures; parallel social customs in Greece are much less common and weaker.
- In particular, to clarify this point, the upper-end of the Roman aristocracy were probably meaningfully wealthier even before massive Roman expansion, than their Greek peers, so inequality at the top of the distribution was greater in Italy. Certainly the ability of those aristocrats to mobilize hundreds of clients is something we do not see often in Greek poleis and suggestive of the greater power Roman aristocrats wielded. But underneath those ‘big men,’ I think our evidence suggests that Italy had more middling and small farmers and fewer ‘very rich peasants’ than Greece, in part because the very action of Roman conquest and land distribution seems to have purposefully produced that effect to maximize the number of households liable for conscription.
- As noted above, this is “Men of Bronze: the myth of the middle-class militia” in his monograph, Greek Warfare: Myths and Realities (2004) and his 2001 chapter, “The Myth of the Middle-Class Army” in T. Bekker-Nielsen/L. Hannestad (eds.), War as a Cultural and Social Force: Essays on Warfare in Antiquity (2001). The latter is more detailed to the point and mostly what I am covering here.
- van Wees does his calculations in hectares.
- That is, 200 medimnoi of grain is enough to feed the necessary enslaved work force and then still maintain the owner’s household in relative comfort. You’ll recall we did our peasant math in modii (8.73 liters) and our households needed around 200-400 modii of grain to survive and 400-800 to life in maximum comfort. The medimnos is a bigger unit (51.84 liters) so 200 medimnoi is 1,187 modii, more than enough to maintain one complete peasant household (of slaves) at subsistence and then another complete household (of leisured elites) in comfort.
- This idea is discussed in Pritchard, D.M. “Thetes, Hoplites, and the Athenian Imaginary,” in Ancient History in a Modern University, eds. T.W. Hillard, R.A. Kearsley, C.E.V. Nixon and A.M. Nobbs (1998) and also van Wees (2004), 55-7.
- On this point, see N. Rosenstein, Rome at War: Farms, Families and Death in the Middle Republic (2004) which has an appendix directly addressing the size of the capite censi.
- Keep in mind that a good number of the men serving as velites at any given time were doing so not because they were too poor to be hastati, but because they were too young: both the very young and the very poor get put out in front as skirmishers.
- This point is made quite effectively in M. Simonton, Classical Greek Oligarchy: A Political History (2017).
- As some works on the demography of Roman Italy have been able to do, e.g. de Ligt Peasants, Citizens and Soldiers (2012).
- 1,666,666 to be precise in keeping the 25% ratio, but I want to keep my numbers here clean in part to be clear what wild estimates they are
- MHH revisited these calculations and largely stood by the upper-end estimates (which I think is also indicative of how the upper-end estimate is the ‘real’ estimate) in M.H. Hanson, “An Update on the Shotgun Method” GRBS 48 (2008).
- Because the tributum was collected as a tax proportional to wealth, but wages (stipendium) were paid out on a flat basis with all infantry receiving the same wage, so poorer infantrymen paid lower taxes when they weren’t serving but received the same wage back as their richer compatriots who paid heavier taxes. Thus poorer assidui end up as net recipients of tax money while rich assidui end up as net contributors. This argument on tributum relies very heavily on the excellent scholarship of James Tan on the nature and function of tributum.
- Interestingly, the prima classis of Roman infantry, at around a quarter to a third of the total number of the pedites (very roughly estimated) approximates the slice of men in Greece serving as hoplites, which makes sense since our sources seem to think – there is some dispute as to if they think rightly – that the prima classis began as the part of Roman society that fought as hoplites. What is different is that the next set of fellows down the social ladder (the next four classes of pedites) in Roman Italy also fight mostly as armored heavy infantry (albeit with worse armor), whereas in Greece the ‘subhoplites’ fight as psiloi, ‘lights’ – skirmishers with very cheap equipment. That is, it turns out a big difference. if I am right above, mainland Greece actually had somewhat more total population than Roman Italy c. 212, but if you bolted all the poleis together you would still never match the Roman deployment of 185,000 men in that year (the largest combined polis army is at Plataea in 479, was probably around 80,000 men, with perhaps another 20,000 Greeks (or somewhat more) on the other side). It turns out spending a century terraforming Italy into an infantry-generation-machine generates a lot of infantry.
- Once again, the idea that Rome was a simple extension of the Greek civic and military tradition is a foundational assumption (read: mistake) of VDH’s Carnage and Culture (2001), which uses this slight of hand to conjure a continuous ‘western’ military tradition (which somehow goes on holiday for most of the Middle Ages) for societies that have functionally no connection at all to the ancient Greek military tradition.
Fascinating. One thing about this model though, is that it would imply one of two things; either democratization and the expansion of the hoplites to include people who aren’t properly of the hoplite class should produce relaibly more hoplites vis a vis the overall population and thus we should be able to see if democratic poleis can field larger amounts of heavy infantry than more oligarchic ones, or that oligarchic states would feel the pressure and institute similar notions themselves to allow them to compete on more even footing.
Of course, that’s complicated by how weak the evidentiary basis is, which makes it hard to tell how many hoplites a given polis can field before and after making a change like this.
I think van Wees or Konijnendijk report that the very phrase “hoplite class” does not seem to have an ancient counterpart. Its likely that many of the leisured men with a full panoply also owned a horse, had time to learn archery, or were part-owners of a fifty-oared galley. Its certainly not safe to assume that a panoply from an Archaic Greek grave or temple was the only arms that the owner posessed. The very assumption that panoply = infantryman may belong to the increasingly massed armies of the Peloponnesian War and the fourth century BCE (there are also hints in Xenophon that the hoplites/psiloi dichotomy in Tyrtaeus, Herodotus, and Thucydides was breaking down in his day as federations like the Boeotian League tried to maximize the size of their phalanx).
I may be misinterpreting, but isn’t the argument here that democratisation was a process of giving (or recognising) political power to the class which had people already serving as hoplites? You would only expect the number of hoplites to expand if the distribution of household wealth shifted to produce more households able to support a hoplite. Perhaps we might expect the poorer households having more political power to shift wealth in their direction. But I can’t imagine that process ever being a sure thing – the rich will use their influence to resist, and getting intended consequences out of economic policy is hard at the best of times! Maybe getting that to happen only happened once, with Rome.
I might in turn be misunderstanding, but the impression I got was a process where because of internal political power shifting, there was a cohort of people who could theoretically afford the sort of arms and armor of a hoplite but were deliberately excluded from doing so, and those exclusions eroding away.
I think this is a misunderstanding. The idea as I understand it is that there are a large number of men (the wealthiest of the Thetes) who can afford a hoplite panoply, and DO fight as hoplites, but aren’t granted the political or social power of someone of the hoplite class.
I always enjoy a historical essay where the author both lays out the ‘conventional wisdom’ as well as going off on their own argument–acknowledging that they’re not delivering ‘complete’ knowledge but ‘in-progress’ arguments, but still exposing the reader to them. That’s not something you get often in works that aren’t facing the academy, and I always enjoy it.
I’m a bit confused by the beginning (detailed in not 4) where you translate VDH’s “20% of adults in Beotia” to “45% of free households”. Did you assume a negligible enslaved population for Beotia?
I understand Athens and Sparta had more enslaved people than other poleis (because they won more wars, which brings you enslaved captives?), but I’m surprised that Beotia would not have a significant fraction of enslaved people, and even more surprised if that is the case that you would not mention it in your math.
Err… could have been made more explicit, but I suspect that adding a “free” modifier proved necessary to make VDH’s quoted number compatible with, well, anything (otherwise a 25% unfree rate would imply ~60% of households provided hoplites?).
Recall that the context was in fact the Pedant complaining about a lack of clarity in various quoted percentages.
Could it be that slaves are counted as part of the household that owns them, rather than as their own (unfree) household?
I would assume from the peasant series that live-in house slaves would be counted as household members by OGH. Possibly field slaves count as their own households, which would make sense of the qualifier.
FWIW, Omar Coloru recently suggested that most Seleukid soldiers were on ‘active duty’ rather than living on their estates, citing Makis Aperghis and Christele Fischer-Bovet (Brill’s Companion to War in the Ancient Iranian Empires p. 315 n. 51). I’m not sure that Antigonid Macedonia had a phalanx of leisured farmers either.
While technology and inequality determine what military force a society could generate, the political economy determines what it actually does. Most societies are not aggressive imperialists because the people (“the militarily and therefore politically significant part of the community”) don’t see that paying so many taxes and providing so much dangerous service is in their interests. For every fifth-century Athens or Republican Rome that gets everyone aligned behind aggressive warfare, there are many societies like fourteenth-century France which would rather lose battles than let the bourgeoisie get any glory, or the sixth-century Sasanid Empire where the nobility seems to have been worried about what the Shahanshah would do to them if he annexed Syria and Egypt and had all that land and money. I am sure your forthcoming book addresses this.
I’m not sure of the evidence that Boeotia had unusually many horsemen and light infantry, Boeotia was not Thrace or Thessaly or one of the poleis around the Black Sea!
Yes, Aperghis assumes basically a large standing Seleucid army, on the back of functionally no evidence, but he needs it to make his high (almost certainly overgenerous) estimates of Seleucid revenues work.
I don’t think this works; both Taylor (2020) and Silvanen Gerrard (in her dissertation, also 2020) reject it, and I think they’re right to do so. Instead, the model remains a significant but small standing force (‘the guard’ in both Gerrard and Bar-Kochva) supported by regular Macedonian troops levied from settlers and auxiliaries levied from subjects.
That structure has the advantage of fitting the evidence we do have, being quite close to the institutions we see in Ptolemaic Egypt and Antigonid Macedon and not requiring the Seleucids to have revenues almost certainly quite a lot higher than they really did (Aperghis is probably over-shooting by around double).
Any estimate of population that starts from reported numbers of men deployed in battle seems highly suspect. Numbers for battles are famously unreliable, and can be inflated or deflated for all sorts of narrative or propaganda reasons. Ancient authors often disagree by wide margins: it’s not uncommon for some to report double or half what another source does. And then you’re adding in all sorts of assumption about how much of the population was of fighting age/gender, how much of that was liable to military service, how much of that was actively raised at the same time, and how much of that was deployed to a particular battle. Every step is a new assumption, every new assumption is a widening of the error bars.
Using this to calculate a total population to anything more than an order-of-magnitude estimate (or, at most, a half-to-double interval) is being widely over confident about the quality of the available data and the reliability of the methodology. This is why good numeracy involves keeping track of uncertainties at each step of the calculation; it’s too easy to fool oneself into false certitude. Footnote 19 stresses that these estimates are wild, but I think it drastically underestimates just how wild they are. I’d recommend doing the maths twice: once with low-but-plausible values for all the numbers involved, and another with high-but-plausible. That should give some indication of just how much uncertainty there is.
This is a bit of a tangent, but defining “military age” up to 60 seems really high to me- certainly higher than the Roman Middle Republic, where most men seemingly finish their military service by their late 20s or early 30s, and men over 46 only get conscripted in major emergencies.
Is Classical Greece unusual in its reliance on old men as soldiers?
That is probably less about the fighting than everything else that soldiers have to do. Societies that want soldiers for years at a time, whether training (Athenian ephiboi after they lost the battle of Chaeronaea, post-1789 conscription) or imperial conquests (Republican Rome) usually recruit them after they are fully grown but before they marry and start households. These societies often want digging and other heavy labour from the troops. Ancient Greek soldiers were generally only called up during campaigns, usually had someone row them if they had to travel long distances, and frequently refused to do the kind of heavy labour that Roman soldiers were willing to do. So like Finnish or Kurdish conscripts today they could be useful for most of their adult life, building up skill and patience even if they got slower and creakier. The ancients were at least as worried about recruiting men too young as too old: Thucydides says that the youngest and the oldest men were kept home to defend the walls of Athens while the men of mature years were sent out to fight.
I have talked about the cult of youth in the US and British military before.
Tyrtaeus of Sparta wrote: “It is shocking when
an old man lies on the front line
before a youth: an old warrior whose head is white
and beard gray, exhaling his strong soul
into the dust, clutching his bloody genitals
into his hands: an abominable vision,
foul to see: his flesh naked. But in a young man
all is beautiful when he still
possesses the shining flower of lovely youth.
Alive he is adored by men,
desired by women, and finest to look upon
when he falls dead in the forward clash.”
And notice that Tyrtaeus assumes that there are significant numbers of men with white hair and grey beards fighting at close quarters! This does not happen in most modern militaries.
IIRC some of the medieval English laws want men from 16 to 60 to be equipped and available for the defense of the kingdom.
Of course in a society in which men of almost any age fight in the front lines, the 60 year-olds we read about may have been the survivors, the fittest of a harsh winnowing process.
“Wealth was defined by the amount of grain (measured in medimnoi, a dry measure unit of 51.84 liters), but for non-farmers (craftsmen and such) you qualified to the class equal to your income (so if you got paid the equivalent of 250 medimnoi of grain to be a blacksmith, you were of the zeugitai, though one imagines fairly few non-landowners qualify for reasons swiftly to become clear).”
What time period are you talking about? Medimnoi per month? Per year? I guess, you must be talking about grain income in a certain time frame since you cant store it as wealth infinitely.
Thanks!
Per year.
If Greece had 6 million people, then it follows that it took it until the 1930s to recover to its Classical population. This is very strange, since in Italy we have far better recovery – if 1st century Italy had 8 million people then recovery happened by the High Middle Ages, and present population is about 7-8 times that level, whereas modern Greece isn’t even twice the Classical population. What gives?
Migration to other, richer lands, perhaps? Remember that the Byzantines had Anatolia and for long periods of time, Syria, Egypt, Sicily, and even Italy (including Rome).
Are we comparing the same area here? Or does the 6 million ancient figure include more of the southern Balkan peninsula, maybe even Magna Grecia and coastal Anatolia?
Peninsular Greece has been used as an example ecocide for as long as that concept existed. Topsoil that originated in the forests encountered by Greek settlers can’t be replaced now that the forests are gone, and the soil preservation and enrichment practices that work in the larger flat spaces in Italy can’t be used effectively on unterraced hills. The area would have needed enough water to support rice cultivation in order to recover population support capacity lost from the soil erosion, or food transportation networks.
Greeks were always leaving Greece, too, however you define Greece; our host seems more aligned with the idea that land ownership was structured so that people couldn’t get new arable land locally, but there’s a competing idea that land arability was in constant decline forcing people out.
Greece was a built-up civilization too early. It didn’t get gobbled by the Persians but demographically it had a similar experience to the Middle East. High populations for thousands of years, decline in relative and often absolute terms. Even more mainstream estimates my understanding is think more people lived in Greece than in the rest of the Balkans. Today it is only 25% even if you ignore Istanbul…
Land degradation was an issue, being more urbanized isn’t helpful demographically with disease, they were closer to carrying capacity. The longterm respective demographic trends of the Middle East and Northern Europe are insane. At the time of Cleopatra there were perhaps 5 million Egyptians and 2 million people in England and Wales. By the time of Muhammad Ali, there were 4 million Egyptians and about 9 million in England and Wales.
For much of the Middle East the time they really fell behind demographically was the 1200s on. The Mongols, plague and Timur were a devastating combo. Then the Ottomans saw demographic stagnation. The Ottomans were not great at suppressing low-level banditry and unrest, and not only did they fail to reverse a lot of land slipping from agrarian to nomad control in the 1200-1400s, in many cases things continued to get worse.
However, for Greece I would more suspect the 500s/600s which sees Justinian plague, collapse of imperial control away from coastal cities and Slavic migrations. It already seems quite a bit less significant by the medieval period, certainly compared to the northern Balkans
Excellent analysis. Keep up the good work.
I’m admittedly not sold on a high count Greek population – six million Greeks imply a population density in the neighbourhood of 30- 50 people/km2 (depending on where exactly classical Greece’s mainland begins and ends). That’s enormous. That’s western European population densities in the late 17th, early 18th century huge. That’s we have access to potatoes in addition to wheat, have replaced oxen with horses and use all metal ploughs huge. That’s our largest cities are two or three times the size of classical Athens huge.
And this population density would be present in archaic and classical Greece. Not the Roman empire with its specialised production and mediterranean mass transit highway distributing African grain across its range, but politically heavily divided, ridiculous number of microstates Greece. Where sure, Athens might import Egyptian wheat, but what about everyone else?
I’d very strongly lean towards wagon-equationing the army sizes in the sources and assume they’re all inflated. As army sizes tend to be right to the current day.
Are there any studies on the actual carrying capacity of mainland Greece with archaic/classical era agricultural means? That’s where I’d look to establish an upper limit (always acknowledging that this upper limit would hardly ever be reached in reality).
20 people/km2? Upper end, but sure. 30? That’s rather pushing it. 50? Never.
Classical Athens to a large extend depended on grain imports from Crimea. Thats what made the battle of Aegospotami so important. The Athenians were cut off from their imports.
Yes, but as Rezo observes above:
“Athens might import Egyptian wheat, but what about everyone else?”
The impression I get is that the Aegean economy was exceptionally highly developed and monetized, using grain imports from Black Sea/Levant/Egypt to feed its relatively large urban population. So perhaps the point of comparison shouldn’t be Europe writ large with 17/18th century farming technology, but the Dutch Republic, say?
A concept of Ancient Greece that confines it to the boundaries of the modern Hellenistic Republic is very wrong and not what the post is about. Even excluding places like Cypress, the Black Sea colonies, and Magna Grecia, the post’s “all poleis” is going to include vast swathes of what is now Turkey.
That’d be why the sentence ‘depending on where exactly classical Greece’s mainland begins and ends’ was used.
Beyond that, the use of the term ‘Greek Mainland’ rather implies that it is not the entirety of the Greek world.
I’d also emphasise that ‘Vast Swathes of Turkey’ rather gives the wrong impression – the Ionian colonies were very much coastal, whereas the interior was very much not Greek. Kind of like how I wouldn’t describe ‘New Jersey’ as ‘Vast swathes of the United States’.
“Greek Mainland” is certainly a nonsensical term, more appropriate to Nineteenth century North European romanticism than to ancient history. An idea of a ‘real’ Greece that excludes Lydians and Dorians and Crete and Rhodes and Smyrna and *Ithaca* is as Greek as Greco-Roman wrestling.
The academic interest of the people demands the peer-reviewed papers that cite the blog!
“Beloch assumes an enslaved population of c. 1m (against a free population of c. 3m), so a society that is roughly 25% enslaved, so we might properly say he imagines a society that is roughly 37.5% hoplite class (or richer), 37.5% poorer households and 25% enslaved households. And returning to a moment to VDH’s The Other Greeks (1995), that’s his model too: if 20% of adults (not just adult males) were citizen-hoplites in Boeotia, then something like 43% of (free) households were hoplite households (remember to adjust not just for women, but also for the elderly),6 which is roughly Beloch’s figure. It is a touch lower, but remember that VDH is computing for Boeotia, a part of Greece where we expect a modestly larger lower class.”
Sorry, isn’t 43% larger than 37.5%? I think maybe something got left out here. maybe the slave percentages?
43% of *free* households vs. 37.5% of all males. The former number excludes slaves from the calculation, the latter number includes it. Beloch assumes 47% of all free households serve as hoplites.
Regarding Sparta, I have to think that we must be overlooking some realities of what the social situation was in classical Sparta (which must also have shifted over the centuries, since we read so often in the mid-200s of reform movements to “restore” the Lycurgan model, implying that much of the old system that we normally read about (via outside, biased sources, almost exclusively) must have fallen apart and was no longer in effect in the old ways. (Whenever those might have been in force.) But there MUST have been a sizable class of men in Sparta, which grew larger over time, of “citizens” who did not qualify for FULL citizenship, were not true homoioi in the sense we read about the “equals”. Spartans who fell out of that class from poverty or some other failure. They would not be true perioikoi because they were not from the other towns of Laconia or born into that class — we don’t hear about Spartiates being “demoted” into perioikoi status — and they must have been liable for military service just the same as others. So the army ranks would have included “full citizens”, allied perioikoi (Laconian hoplites, light infantry such as the Skiritai), helots (skirmishers, servants, attendants) — and also the “Spartans” who were seen as second-class citizens, altho’ we have no name for these (I do not refer to the neodamodeis or mothaces but perhaps these were the mysterious hypomeiones, “inferiors”?)
Laconian freemen (perioikoi) do not seem to have shirked their duties as soldiers in the Lacedaemonian state, and neiher would the subclass of “inferiors”, even tho’ these groups are seldom talked about in the surviving histories (which again were mainly written by outsiders). But as the number of full Spartiates declined over the centuries, they must have made up an ever-larger number of the Lacedaemonian levy. It’s a pity we do not know more about their lives or their social or governing systems. The city of Sparta proper was a small part of a much larger polity. But we know little about so much of it.
If you read our host’s treatise on Sparta, he touches on that very question.
https://acoup.blog/category/collections/this-isnt-sparta/
tl;dr: Throughout its history, Sparta had an ever expanding class of disenfranchised Spartans who had fallen out of citizen status
Telling people that your reform movement is seeking to restore your society to a past model is a sure sign that your movement is proposing nothing but radical and unprecedented changes to your society. Either the Lycurgan model never existed at all, or it’s actual structure was orthogonal to what the reformers actually wanted to do.
makes sense, you mention something that would be a later growth out of thaat with the Macedonian Ruling classes over bigger population of Conquered places, and how that would cause the Diadochi Successors endless amount of problems, not in the least in having so many peer Rival powers of each other to contend with when Rome Mostly at that point did not have nearly as much trouble with near peers in their own Back Yard anymore.
But also the massive issues of troop resource replenishment out of populations not fully sold on the Ruling Class, especially when it gets weaker and is bleeding.
Greece having less Heavy Infantry in the first place, and what it has being a bit more class divided, so the weaker and smaller forces that get decimated..
Later Rome who ever had to have fought a Complete Alexander Unified Empire
/when the thing never really had that and was quite crumbly even before/
would have been a nuts struggle, but Rome got them piecemeal.
but that slight diversion taking centuries before that as precursor to the Macedonian Nonsense.
Especially important is the whole, mostly fighting each other and a few others issue.
“This is the last part of our four-part series (I, II, IIIa, IIIb, Intermission)”
“I ended up having to split this into two parts for time”
heh.
Re: the relative wealth of Roman vs Greek elites, this made me recall when our host discussed the issue on the disappearance of elite burial goods as a result of Roman expansion. IIRC it was in a twitter thread on the Samnite armor tradition and does’t seem to be on Acoup unfortunately, a quick search and the closest I could find on the blog was a brief aside in the post on the Dilectus. Dispossession of these local elites is, I think, the real cause why the Roman elite at the time it appears in the written record is richer than their Greek (if not Macedonian) counterparts. Clientelism may be a foundational part of Roman culture compared to its much weaker presence in Greece but it was widespread among her close neighbors, and it seems unlikely they or maybe even their wealthier Etruscan neighbors were richer than Greek elites in say 500 BC.
Given that the remarkable capacity of the Roman society to generate heavy infantry has been mentioned before, and is here described as being a conscious choice, do researchers know how this came to pass?
Because playing an empire builder on the PC, I can see this happening, but in the real world – coming up with the model, convincing the rest of the ruling class, and then keeping it going for centuries – this sounds extremely challenging.
Oddly enough the previous week’s intermission may speak to this, in the debate about war as glorious. I can’t find the cite now but someone was writing about Homeric bronze age war being about individual martial glory, classical Greece being a mixture of glory-seeking and practical politics, and the Roman Republic/ Empire being almost entirely about practical politics. While in classical Greece war was still largely about giving the upper classes the chance to prove how strong and brave and important in war they were, somehow it came to pass that Rome as a society decided that war was about the mundane business of winning. Even by such unheroic things as making sure their poor nobodies had good weapons, and by the use of impersonal formation tactics that guaranteed that whatever the outcome between two soldiers facing each other on the front line, on average the Roman forces would give better than they got.
The later population estimates more or less double the earlier ones. But could Greece in this period actually support that many people (6 million+)?
I mean there’s apparently only about 10.5 million people there *today*, with farming practices that allow for much better harvests, and a much greater ability to import food.
Check
https://en.wikisource.org/wiki/Statesman%27s_Year-Book_1899
for 1890-s population.
Greece page 693. 1896 census (rounding to thousands by me). Area in square English miles. Then nomarchy borders.
2 433 000 people on 25012 square miles
Laconia – 135 000 people on 1679 sq mi
Messenia – 205 000 people on 1221 sq mi
Lacedaemon combined – 340 000 people (I may make rounding errors, here I know I do!) on 2900 sq mi
Rest of Peloponnesus – Elis and Achaea, Arcadia, Corinth and Argos – 560 000 people on 5363 sq mi
Total Peloponnesus – 900 000 people on 8263 sq mi
Attica and Boeotia, not administratively separated in 1896 – 313 000 people on 2472 sq mi
Western strip, Phocis to Acarnania – 317 000 people on 5057 sq mi
Ionian islands – 252 000 people on 1010 sq mi
Aegean islands – 249 000 people on 3139 sq mi
Note that regions that potentially fought on Greek side at Thermopylae had all combined just 2 030 000 people in 1896.
Yes, Macedonia, Thrace, Crete, Asia Minor I excluded – but they did not fight on Hellene side. I also left out Thessaly which surrendered before Thermopylae
And now take Italy… Pages 720-722. The estimates for 1898.
Sicily 3 603 000 on 9936 sq mi
Sardinia 766 000 on 9294 sq mi
on peninsula Italy:
Tuscany 2 332 000 on 9304 sq mi
Marche 981 000 on 3763 sq mi
Umbria 612 000 on 3748 sq mi
Latium 1 043 000 on 4663 sq mi
Abruzzi 1 398 000 on 6380 sq mi
Campania 3 177 000 on 6289 sq mi
Apulia 1 910 000 on 7376 sq mi
Basilicata 551 000 on 3845 sq mi
Calabria 1 335 000 on 5819 sq mi
total peninsula: 13 340 000 people in 1898
The Italian peninsula without islands, that is the area that contributed soldiers to Roman side on Cannae, had, in 1890s, about 7 times the population of Greek peninsula+isles that were maybe on Greek side at Thermopylae.
How did the ratio differ in antiquity
Its worth noting that the Battle of Mycale happened simultaneously, which adds another 20,000+. Then you have to remember the communities that largely stayed out of it. Only half or so of modern Greece was in the anti-Persia alliance. Greeks may have had similar mobilization capacity in *numbers*.
The issue is quality, in turn a reflection on societal structure and mobilization. The Anti-Persian alliance had over 100,000 men raised on land and sea simultaneously. Only ~40% of that heavy infantry, the rest light infantry, rowers. Romans by comparison are about 70% heavy infantry and their heavy infantry are heavier. The other issue of course is unity. Rome could mobilize all of Italy intensely. Even the anti-Persian alliance or Alexander did not come lose to that.
Incidentally on your Carthage twitter thread, while Carthage didn’t cover itself necessarily in glory in the Sicilian Wars compared to the Punic Wars to put it mildly, I think digging into it narrows the contrast. Carthage in 310 was able simultaneously to field a large army in Africa, maintain an active siege of Syracuse, and have a large fleet too. By comparison Carthage fielded about 60,000 men from Africa in the Second Punic War plus a navy.
I think the basic tale is:
1. Carthage never made an all-out effort against Syracuse.
2. Syracuse and allies could field 1 decent-sized field army and a moderate navy on a good day (quite respectable given this isn’t even all of Sicily!)
3. Carthage in the First Punic War makes a titanic naval effort and Romans like dying at sea in storms. But I think Carthage would have lost pretty quickly without bodies of water.
4. It required the massive new pools of manpower the Barcids tapped to be close to a land peer of Rome.
Core Carthage’s inherent strength wasn’t necessarily much different in Hannibal’s time than 100 years earlier even if the result combined with the Barcids was much more impressive.
Its worth noting that this core strength is far higher compared to population than Alexander’s Successors. Carthage’s African territories its hard to image had more than a few million inhabitants. Adding Barcid Spain adds a few million more. So similar to the Ptolemies and quite a bit less than the Seleucids. But it gave the Romes *far* more problems.
“Our sources offer little sense that they thought Athenian class structure was ever unusual or remarkable beyond the fact that Athens was very big (in contrast to Sparta, which is treated as quite strange)….”
My impression is that most Ancient Greek sources are written by Athenians, who of course, wouldn’t think that the Athenian class structure was unusual. Is this just a “my culture is the norm, everyone else is the exception” thing or is there more to it?
One key preserved Ancient Greek source which is not written by Athenian, does not talk much about Athens and is not in Athenian dialect is “How to survive under siege”, by Aeneas Tacticus.
So, in general, quite a lot of writers from a culture may be interested in doing the opposite – that is, portraying it as atypical (laudatory). Americans constantly do it, coming up with American exceptionalist arguments, often about institutions and cultural elements on which the US is not at all exceptional. VDH does the same for Western culture writ large in The Western Way of War – he portrays Greek warfare in the orthodox model as atypical (laudatory) and portending Western superiority, even if it may not have been much different from what we see in other Mediterranean spear-and-shield cultures.